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Marriage status for Hermaphrodites (born that way) in Chrisitian Theology?

Given the rare situations where both male and female genitalia are definitely present, how would this be viewed morally speaking if either a man or a woman wanted to marry the person?

Update:

Thank you all for your good answers on this question but I must pick one BA. Redeemed hit the nail on the head for me.

8 Answers

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  • 8 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    In the case of hermaphroditism, the identity of the individual is still intended by God to be one or the other. After all, God would not make someone in contradiction to His created order and purpose. This means the hermaphrodite, thought physically ambiguous, does possess an identity of one or the other. It would seem best, then, to let the hermaphrodite grow and decide with which gender to side since he/she would know his/her own identity internally. If surgery is elected to make the decision permanent by altering the body to represent one or the other gender, then that seems like a reasonable choice to make.

    Second, it appears that most, if not all, hermaphrodites have a definite side they take as they develop since there is an internal genetic (XX, XY) dominance even though there is an external ambiguity. It is the internal genetic dominance that determines male and female -- even though sometimes mutations occur that leave both sexual organs. In some cases, there are hermaphrodites who are distinctly male in appearance yet have female sexual organs. There are also those who appear decidedly feminine in physical appearance yet possess male sexual organs. Either way, the genetic dominance is the gender and the person will manifest that dominance as he or she matures.

    http://carm.org/hermaphrodites

    Source(s): TR
  • 8 years ago

    They could fall under the category of "eunuchs who have been made so from birth"

    Per Canon 1084 §3 "Without prejudice to the provisions of Canon 1098, sterility neither forbids nor invalidates a marriage." Both parties, however, must be physically capable of completed vaginal intercourse, wherein the man ejaculates "true semen" into the woman's vagina. (See [2] for details.) To invalidate a marriage, the impotence must be perpetual (i.e., incurable) and antecedent to the marriage. The impotence can either be absolute or relative. This impediment is generally considered to derive from divine natural law, and so cannot be dispensed.[15] The reason behind this impediment is explained in the Summa Theologica:[16] “In marriage there is a contract whereby one is bound to pay the other the marital debt: wherefore just as in other contracts, the bond is unfitting if a person bind himself to what he cannot give or do, so the marriage contract is unfitting, if it be made by one who cannot pay the marital debt.”

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Canonical_impediment#...

    http://www.ewtn.com/library/Doctrine/IMPOSTER.HTM

  • Bruce
    Lv 7
    8 years ago

    Sex is determined by chromosomes, not by genitalia. Usually, one corrects any abnormalities surgically. If not, the man or woman should obviously inform a potential mating partner. Where there is no sexual intercourse, there is no marriage, which is why same-sex marriage is impossible: It can never be consummated.

    As Jesus affirmed, God makes us male and female (Matt 19:4). God doesn't make mistakes, but we live in a fallen world, where accidents happen.

    Cheers,

    Bruce

  • carl
    Lv 7
    8 years ago

    I think it would depend on which sexual traits are dominant and which sexual organ actually works. Humans are not true Hermaphrodites. Humans do not have both fully functioning organs from both sexes. They have a clear dominant sex. Apparently most 'intersex' people are sterile. Sterility would prohibit marriage in Catholicism. Since the purpose of sex is for procreation.

    http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=201107...

  • 8 years ago

    Matthew 19:6

    King James Bible (Cambridge Ed.)

    'Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder'

    It would appear as they are the fulfillment of God's plan for mankind, and if they sleep with another person they would be guilty of fornication/adultery.

  • Anonymous
    8 years ago

    I don't recollect the existence of hermaphrodites mentioned in the Bible, so you are thrown back onto Jesus' general attitude to marriage and sexual matters, which stems from the Jewish tradition.

  • Mike K
    Lv 7
    6 years ago

    And I bet y all got a real purty mouth boy just drop them pants and squeal like a pig you fuckwit Christ this question is 3 years old

  • 6 years ago

    I really noticed you're f*ckin' fag since I checked your questions and answers ...

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